vision ias test series | vision ias test series 2024 pdf TEST 3,, vision ias test series, vision ias test series 2024 pdf, vision ias test series 2024 pdf, vision ias test series 2024 free upsc material

vision ias test series | vision ias test series 2024 pdf TEST 3

vision ias test series | vision ias test series 2024 pdf TEST 3,, vision ias test series, vision ias test series 2024 pdf, vision ias test series 2024 pdf, vision ias test series 2024 free upsc material
vision ias test series | vision ias test series 2024 pdf TEST 3,, vision ias test series, vision ias test series 2024 pdf, vision ias test series 2024 pdf, vision ias test series 2024 free upsc material

Q.1 In the context of the basic philosophy of the constitution, which of the following is/are the functions of a constitution?

Answer :

  • Constitution can be broadly defined as the basic principles and laws of a nation, state, or social group that determine the powers and duties of the government and guarantee certain rights to the people in it.

Basic functions of a constitution

Any group will need some basic rules that are publicly promulgated and known to all members of that group to achieve a minimal degree of coordination. But these rules must not only be known, they must also be enforceable. If citizens have no assurance that others will follow these rules, they will themselves have no reason to follow these rules

▪ Thus, It provides a set of basic rules that allow for minimal coordination amongst members of a society.

The constitution specifies who has the power to make decisions in a society. It decides how the government will be constituted. Constitution also sets some limits on what a government can impose on its citizens. These limits are fundamental in the sense that government may never trespass them.

Constitution also enables the government to fulfil the aspirations of a society and create conditions for just society.

Q.2 ‘The claims of the members of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes shall be taken into consideration, consistently with the maintenance of efficiency of administration, in the making of appointments to services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or a State’. This provision was provided in the Indian Constitution under.

Answer :

DIRECTIVES OUTSIDE PART IV: Apart from the Directives included in Part IV, there are some other Directives contained in other parts of the Constitution. They are:

  1. Claims of SCs and STs to Services: The claims of the members of the Scheduled Castes and theScheduled Tribes shall be taken into consideration, consistently with the maintenance of efficiency of administration, in the making of appointments to services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or a State (Article 335 in Part XVI).
  2. Instruction in mother tongue: It shall be the endeavor of every state and every local authority within the state to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups (Article 350-A in Part XVII).
  3. Development of the Hindi Language: It shall be the duty of the Union to promote the spread of the Hindi language and to develop it so that it may serve as a medium of expression for all the elements of the composite culture of India (Article 351 in Part XVII).
  • The above Directives are also non-justiciable in nature. However, they are also given equal importance and attention by the judiciary on the ground that all parts of the constitution must be read together.

Q.3: Which of the following are the features of fundamental rights?

Answer:

FEATURES OF FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS

The Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Constitution are characterized by the following:

  • Some of them are available only to citizens while others are available to all persons whether citizens, foreigners, or legal persons like corporations or companies.
  • They are not absolute but qualified. The state can impose reasonable restrictions on them.However, whether such restrictions are reasonable or not is to be decided by the courts. Thus,they strike a balance between the rights of the individual and those of the society as a whole, between individual liberty and social control.
  • All of them are available against the arbitrary action of the state. However, some of them are also available against the action of private individuals. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Some of them are negative in character, that is, place limitations on the authority of the State, while others are positive in nature, conferring certain privileges on the persons.
  • They are justiciable, allowing persons to move the courts for their enforcement, if and when they are violated.
  • They are defended and guaranteed by the Supreme Court. Hence, the aggrieved person can directly go to the Supreme Court, not necessarily by way of appeal against the judgment of the high courts.
  • They are not sacrosanct or permanent. The Parliament can curtail or repeal them but only by a constitutional amendment act and not by an ordinary act. Moreover, this can be done without affecting the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution.
  • They can be suspended during the operation of a National Emergency except for the rights guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21. Further, the six rights guaranteed by Article 19 can be suspended only when an emergency is declared on the grounds of war or external aggression (i.e., external emergency) and not on the ground of armed rebellion (i.e., internal emergency).
  • Their scope of operation is limited by Article 31A (saving of laws providing for the acquisition of estates, etc.), Article 31B (validation of certain acts and regulations included in the 9th Schedule), and Article 31C (saving of laws giving effect to certain directive principles).
  • Their application to the members of armed forces, para-military forces, police forces, intelligence agencies, and analogous services can be restricted or abrogated by the Parliament (Article 33).
  • Their application can be restricted while martial law is in force in any area. Martial law means military rule’ imposed under abnormal circumstances to restore order (Article 34). It is different from the imposition of a national emergency.
  • Most of them are directly enforceable (self-executory) while a few of them can be enforced on the basis of a law made for giving effect to them. Such a law can be made only by the Parliament and not by state legislatures so that uniformity throughout the country is maintained (Article 35).

Q.4: With reference to Ayushman BharatPradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY), consider the following statements:

Answer:

  • With an objective to shift the focus of measuring the performance of hospitals from the volume of services provided to the value of healthcare services, National Health Authority (NHA) is introducing a new system to measure and grade hospital performance under the flagship scheme Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB PM-JAY).
  • The new initiative will introduce the concept of ‘value-based care’, where payment will be outcomebased and providers will be rewarded according to quality of treatment delivered.
  • AB PMJAY is a centrally sponsored health assurance scheme. It provides a cover of up to Rs. 5 lakhs per family per year for secondary and tertiary care hospitalization. This is the “world’s largest government-funded healthcare program” targeting more than 50 crore beneficiaries.
  • It provides cashless and paperless access to services for beneficiaries at point of service. Beneficiary families have been identified from Socio-Economic Caste Census, 2011.
  • National Health Authority (NHA) is the apex body responsible for implementing India’s flagship public health insurance/assurance scheme called “Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana” & has been entrusted with the role of designing strategy, building technological infrastructure, and implementing of “National Digital Health Mission” to create a National Digital Health Ecosystem.
  • National Health Authority is the successor of the National Health Agency, which was functioning as a registered society under the Societies Registration Act, 1860 since 23rd May 2018. Pursuant to Cabinet decision for full functional autonomy, National Health Agency was reconstituted as the National Health Authority.

Q.5: Consider the following statements regarding the recently released Global Economic Prospects report:

Answer:

  • Global Economic Prospects, a flagship report (issued twice a year) was recently released by World Bank.
  • It examines global economic developments and prospects, with a special focus on emerging markets and developing economies (EMDEs).

Key Projections:

  1. Global GDP Growth: 1.7% in 2023 – third-weakest pace since 1993, overshadowed only by 2009 and2020 global recessions.
  2. ndia is expected to grow at 6.6% in 2023.
  3. Reasons for the slowdown: Elevated Inflation, Higher interest rates, reduced investment and disruptions caused by Russia-Ukraine war.
  4. Any additional adverse shocks could push the global economy into recession.
  5. Recession is a significant, pervasive, and persistent decline in economic activity – at least for two onsecutive quarters of negative GDP for most analyses.

Q.6: Which of the following is/are Ozone Depleting Substances (ODS)?

  1. Methyl Bromide
  2. Hydrobromoflurocarbons (HBFCs)
  3. Carbon tetrachloride
  4. Methyl chloroform

Answer:

  • Recently, a report titled “Scientific Assessment of Ozone Depletion: 2022” was prepared in
    coordination with WMO, UNEP, National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), NASA,
    and European Commission.
  • Key observations of the report:
    o Actions taken under Montreal Protocol contribute to ozone recovery in the upper stratospheric layer.
    o If current policies remain in place, the ozone layer is expected to recover to 1980 values by around 2066 over the Antarctic, by 2045 over the Arctic, and by 2040 for the rest of the world.
  • Ozone-depleting substances are man-made gases that destroy ozone once they reach the ozone layer. The ozone layer sits in the upper atmosphere and reduces the amount of harmful ultraviolet radiation that reaches Earth from the sun. Ultraviolet radiation can have detrimental effects on both humans and the environment. For instance, inducing skin cancer and cataract distorts plant growth, and damages the marine environment.

Ozone-depleting substances include:

  1. chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
  2. hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs)
  3. hydrobromoflurocarbons (HBFCs). Hence option 2 is correct.
  4. halons
  5. methyl bromide. Hence option 1 is correct.
  6. carbon tetrachloride. Hence option 3 is correct.
  7. methyl chloroform. Hence option 4 is correct.

They have been used as:

  1. refrigerants in commercial, home, and vehicle air conditioners and refrigerators
  2. foam blowing agents
  3. components in electrical equipment
  4. industrial solvents
  5. solvents for cleaning (including dry cleaning)
  6. aerosol spray propellants
  7. fumigants

Q.7: Which one of the following recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee is incorporated in the Constitution under Fundamental duties?

Answer:

  • Swaran Singh Committee was set up in 1976 by the Congress government to provide suggestions on the inclusion of the Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution. The Congress Government at the Centre accepted these recommendations and enacted the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act in 1976. This amendment added a new part, namely, Part IVA to the Constitution. This new part consists of only one Article, that is, Article 51A.
  • Though the Swaran Singh Committee suggested the incorporation of eight Fundamental Duties in the Constitution, the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976) included ten Fundamental Duties.
  • Certain recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee were not accepted and hence, not incorporated into the Constitution. This include:
  1. The Parliament may provide for the imposition of such penalty or punishment as may be considered appropriate for any non-compliance with or refusal to observe any of the duties. Hence statement (a) is not correct.
  2. No law imposing such penalty or punishment shall be called in question in any court on the ground of infringement of any of Fundamental Rights or on the ground of repugnancy to any other provision of the Constitution. Hence statement (d) is not correct.
  3. Duty to pay taxes should also be a Fundamental Duty of the citizens.
vision ias test series | vision ias test series 2024 pdf TEST 2
@visionias

Q.8: Which of the following is not a function of the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)?
(a) Investigating cases of corruption, bribery, and misconduct of Central government employees.
(b) Probe terror attacks including bomb blasts, hijacking of aircraft and ships, attacks on nuclear installations, and use of weapons of mass destruction.
(c) Investigating serious crimes, having national and international ramifications, committed by organized gangs of professional criminals.
(d) Maintaining crime statistics and disseminating criminal information.

Answer:

  • The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) was set up in 1963 by a resolution of the Ministry of Home Affairs. Later, it was transferred to the Ministry of Personnel and now it enjoys the status of an attached office. The Special Police Establishment (which looked into vigilance cases) setup in 1941 was also merged with the CBI. The establishment of the CBI was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962–1964). The CBI is not a statutory body. It derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, of 1946.

The functions of CBI are:

  1. Investigating cases of corruption, bribery, and misconduct of Central government employees.
    Hence statement (a) is correct.
  2. nvestigating cases relating to infringement of fiscal and economic laws, that is, breach of laws concerning export and import control, customs and central excise, income tax, foreign exchange regulations, and so on. However, such cases are taken up either in consultation with or at the request of the department concerned.
  3. Investigating serious crimes, having national and international ramifications, committed by
    organized gangs of professional criminals. Hence statement (c) is correct.
  4. Coordinating the activities of the anticorruption agencies and the various state police forces
  5. Taking up, on the request of a state government, any case of public importance for investigation.
  6. Maintaining crime statistics and disseminating criminal information. Hence statement (d) is
    correct.

Probing terror attacks including bomb blasts, hijacking of aircraft and ships, attacks on nuclear installations, and use of weapons of mass destruction is the function of the National Investigation Agency. Hence option (b) is not correct.

Q.9: With reference to the Universal Serial Bus (USB) Type-C connector in news recently, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a double-sided connector with reversibility.
  2. It is not backward compatible with previous USB Types.

Answer:

  • The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs has introduced standards for USB Type-C ports, plug, and cables used in electronic devices like mobile phones, aptops, etc. It aims to provide common charging solutions for various electronic devices sold in the country by March 2025.

Need for Common Charger:

USB i.e., Universal Serial Bus (an industry standard) is used for connecting a wide variety of devices to a processor.

  • USB Types: USB-A is a flat and rectangular shape; USB-B has multiple designs, but the commonshape is a square; and USB-C is a smaller rectangular with rounded corners. In the EU by 2024, all mobile phones, tablets, and cameras will be sold with a USB Type-C charging port.
  • USB Type-C uses a 24-pin double-sided connector allowing device manufacturers to enable Alternate Mode, which unlocks the ability to use alternate data protocols for direct device-to-host transmission. This allows you to output VGA, HDMI, DisplayPort, Thunderbolt, Ethernet, or other types of connections from a single USB Type-C port with the help of compatible adapters. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    • The USB Type-C is a new reversible connector that allows you to connect the cable to your device in any direction, unlike its predecessors.
    • The physical USB-C connector isn’t backward compatible, but the underlying USB standard is. One can’t plug older USB devices into a modern, tiny USB-C port, nor can one connect a USB-C connector to an older, larger USB port. But that doesn’t mean one has to discard all your old peripherals. USB 3.1 is still backward-compatible with older versions of USB, so one just needs a physical adapter with a USB-C connector on one end and a larger, older-style USB port on the other end. One can then plug your older devices directly into a USB Type-C port. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
    • It has the ability to use a single cable for data transfer, deliver video to a display, and power delivery, which are the key features of USB Type-C.

    Q.10: In the context of historical underpinnings of the Indian constitution, which of the following Acts introduced ordinances for the first time?

    Answer:

    • After the great revolt of 1857, the British Government felt the necessity of seeking the cooperation of the Indians in the administration of their country. In pursuance of this policy of association, three acts were enacted by the British Parliament in 1861, 1892 and 1909. The Indian Councils Act of 1861 is an important landmark in the constitutional and political history of India.
    • The features of this Act were as follows
      1. It made the beginning of the representative institutions by associating Indians with the law-making process. It, thus, provided that the Viceroy should nominate some Indians as non-official members of his expanded council. In 1862, Lord Canning, the then Viceroy, nominated three Indians to his egislative council–the Raja of Benaras, the Maharaja of Patiala and Sir Dinkar Rao.
      2. It initiated the process of decentralization by restoring the legislative powers to the Bombay and Madras Presidencies.
      3. It also provided for the establishment of new legislative councils for Bengal, North-Western Provinces and Punjab, which were established in 1862, 1886 and 1897, respectively.
      4. It empowered the Viceroy to make rules and orders for the more convenient transaction of business in the council. It also gave recognition to the ‘portfolio’ system, introduced by Lord Canning in
    • Under this, a member of the Viceroy’s council was made in-charge of one or more departments of the Government and was authorised to issue final orders on behalf of the council on matters of his department(s).
      1.It empowered the Viceroy to issue ordinances, without the concurrence of the legislative council, during an emergency.

    1 thought on “vision ias test series | vision ias test series 2024 pdf TEST 3”

    1. Pingback: Vision ias test series 2024 pdf TEST 4

    Leave a Comment

    Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *

    Scroll to Top